New Pattern English Paragraph Summary Questions for SBI PO 2018

Directions (1-15): Five alternative summaries are given below the text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

Q1. The pursuit of a sustainable global society of low CO₂ emitters requires a tremendous effort. Precisely for this reason, it also requires a broadly shared ethical basis. This would guide the negotiating parties in such a way that they look not only for solutions to a part of the problem, but first and foremost at a comprehensive solution to the entire problem. The climate change issue is too important to be left in the care of politicians. It is therefore imperative that not only nation states, but the business community and citizens combine their efforts to save our planet's climate. That is not only a scientific necessity; it is an ethical imperative.

(a) Since a global society of low CO₂ emitters requires tremendous effort, it requires a shared ethical basis on which a comprehensive solution can emerge. It is imperative that not only politicians but business and citizens are involved to save the planet’s climate.

(b) Tremendous efforts and a shared ethical basis are required for sustainable global society of low CO₂ emitters that can negotiate a comprehensive solution to climate change. It is imperative that nations and citizens work together to save the planet’s climate.

(c) The scientific and ethical imperative to find a comprehensive solution to climate change is that there are combined efforts form politicians, business and citizens to constitute a sustainable society of low CO₂ emitters.

(d) A global society of low CO₂ emitters requires tremendous effort, and a shared ethical basis. It is a scientific and ethical imperative that not only politicians but business and citizens are involved to save the planet’s climate.

(e) Since a global society of low CO₂ emitters requires tremendous effort, it requires a shared ethical basis so that a comprehensive solution can emerge. Since politicians cannot be trusted, business and citizens must get involved in the efforts to save the planet’s climate.

 

Q2. If foreign institutions are to be allowed at all, it is better that they operate within an appropriate framework of regulation. If not, unscrupulous operators can use the “foreign” tag to exploit poorly informed students who do not have the scores to enter a good national institution or the finances to travel abroad to acquire a good education. In an environment where good higher educational facilities are in short supply, such operators could get away with charging high fees for courses backed by inadequately qualified faculty, inferior infrastructure and substandard equipment.

(a) If foreign universities are to be allowed, there should be regulated so that the unsuspecting poor and the low scorers are not exploited by unscrupulous operators.

(b) The operation of foreign universities must be regulated to prevent the exploitation of students by using their foreign tag to charge high fees for poor facilities.

(c) If the operation of foreign universities is not regulated they are likely to charge the students high fees using their “foreign tag” and offer poor facilities in return.

(d) If foreign universities are to be allowed, their operations must be regulated; otherwise, unscrupulous elements will use the foreign tag to charge high fees even for poor facilities.

(e) Students who have low scores and those who cannot afford to study abroad are likely to be exploited by foreign universities if these universities are allowed to operate without regulations.

Q3. Nutrition is important to ensure proper brain formation and development, which starts in the womb: development of the brain goes on during early childhood. Iodine deficiency is known to affect a child’s Intelligence Quotient (IQ) adversely. It has also been established that children with deficient growth before age two are at an increased risk of chronic disease as adults, especially if they gain weight rapidly in the later stages of childhood. A low birthweight baby, who is stunted and underweight in its infancy and gains weight rapidly in childhood and adult life, is much more prone to chronic conditions such as cardiovascular disease and diabetes.

(a) Nutrition is important not only for the formation and development of the brain in the womb, and for the intelligent quotient as a child, but also for the physical well-being in adult life.

(b) Nutrition affects brain formation and development; iodine is related to IQ. Low weight at birth and rapid weight-gain in childhood increases the risk of heart disease and diabetes in adult life.

(c) Nutrition affects a child’s brain formation and development. Lack of iodine causes low IQ, whereas low weight babies develop heart disease and diabetes in later life.

(d) Starting in the womb, nutrition affects the child’s brain formation and development. A low baby is more prone to develop cardiovascular disease and diabetes if it gains weight during childhood.

(e) Nutrition is important for brain formation and development as well as for the overall health. Iodine can affect the child’s IQ, and low weight at birth can lead to chronic conditions in adult life.

Q4. When a species evolves traits that seem to have little to do with individual survival-bright colours, say, or oversize horns, it is typically the male alone who sports these excesses. Observing this, Charles Darwin proposed the idea of “selection in relation to sex” as a follow-up to his theory of natural selection. He defined it as the struggle between members of one sex, “generally male,” to possess the other. The plumage of peacocks attracts peahens. The stag’s antlers are there to fight off other stags and so on.

(a) The plumage of peacocks and the stag’s antlers, according to Charles Darwin, have little to do with survival but are evolutionary male excesses to possess the female.

(b) Bright colours or oversize horns, according to Charles Darwin, are evolutionary excesses unrelated to individual survival but help the male in the struggle to possess the female.

(c) Charles Darwin defined the plumage of peacocks and the stag’s antlers as excesses in the struggle between members of one sex to possess the other.

(d) According to Charles Darwin, when a species evolves excesses that have nothing to do with survival they are generally male and useful to fight off the other male.

(e) In his follow up to natural selection Charles Darwin defined evolutionary excesses as having little to do with survival and more to do with male domination of the female.

Q5. Some people think sports cars are threatened with extinction by tightening restrictions on carbon-dioxide emissions and unacceptable fuel-guzzling. They fear the roar of the V8 will be replaced by the whirr of the electric armature – and that motoring will never be the same again. Well, it ought to be quieter, that is true. But they need not fear that electric cars will be slower. The secret is that electric motors are better than combustion engines. They have more oomph, and no need of a gearbox to deliver it.

(a) Contrary to what some people think sports cars will go even faster with electric power.

(b) The belief that sports cars will become extinct is a misplaced one, as cars with electric motors will go faster than combustion engines.

(c) The restrictions on carbon emissions need not make the sports cars extinct as faster electric cars will easily replace them.

(d) Contrary to popular belief that electric cars are slower, they are in fact better and faster than combustion engines.

(e) Though more noisy than the combustion engines cars with electric motors deliver more power even without a gearbox; they will replace the combustion engines.

Q6. From the beginning, the cloud hanging over the whole hydrogen enterprise has not been the power source as such, but the intractable difficulty of distributing and storing the stuff. It is not hard to see why. Hydrogen atoms are the smallest and lightest in the universe. The next heaviest element in the periodic table, the inert gas helium, is used for detecting cracks in pressure vessels and the like. Even though helium atoms are four times chunkier than hydrogen atoms, they are still small enough to find all the weak spots as they worm their way through the crystalline structure of solid steel several centimeters thick. If hydrogen were used as a crack detector, it would escape four times faster.

(a) Hydrogen enterprise is doomed to ultimate failure because hydrogen like helium can be used as a crack detector.

(b) Storing and distributing hydrogen is difficult as it is made up of the smallest and lightest atoms will leak through the weak spots even through walls several centimeters thick.

(c) Hydrogen enterprise cannot succeed as storing and distributing it is a formidable challenge because it can leak through even steel four times faster than helium.

(d) As a power source the difficulty of hydrogen enterprise is the difficulty in storing and distributing it because of its lightness.

(e) The difficulty that hydrogen enterprise faces is storing and distribution, as hydrogen atoms are the smallest and the lightest and can escape through the structure of even solid steel.

Q7. Criminals watch television too, and there is evidence they are also changing their behaviour. Most of the techniques used in crime shows are, after all, at least grounded in truth. Bleach, which destroys DNA, is now more likely to be used by murderers to cover their tracks. The wearing of gloves is more common, as is the taping shut – rather than the DNA-laden licking – of envelopes. Investigators comb crime scenes ever more finely now for new kinds of evidence, which is creating problems with the tracking and storage of evidence.

(a) Since criminals are also influenced by television shows, they change their behaviour to leave fewer traces, forcing investigators to search for new kinds of evidence.

(b) Criminals learn from television shows that bleach can destroy DNA and have learnt to cover their tracks giving rise to the need for new kinds of evidence.

(c) The problem of having to search for new kinds of evidence arises from criminals who watch television learning to cover their tracks better.

(d) Since criminals learn from television that bleach destroys DNA, wearing gloves, and taping envelopes etc., cover their tracks, investigators now look for new evidence.

(e) Since criminals are also influenced by the television shows they watch; they have learnt to cover their tracks effectively posing a problem for investigators.

Q8. Storing energy is one of the biggest obstacles to the widespread adoption of alternative sources of power. Batteries can be bulky and slow to charge. Hydrogen, which can be made electrolytically from water and used to power fuel cells, is difficult to handle. But there may be an alternative: magnesium. As school chemistry lessons show, metallic magnesium is highly reactive and stores a lot of energy. Even a small amount of magnesium ribbon burns in a flame with a satisfying white heat. Researchers are now devising ways to extract energy from magnesium in a more controlled fashion.

(a) Problems with the storage and handling of conventional energy sources have forced the researchers to turn their attention to magnesium which stores a lot of energy naturally.

(b) As hydrogen and dry cells pose great obstacles to storing energy, researchers are looking at extracting energy from magnesium which stores a lot of energy.

(c) As storing energy is a big obstacle to the adoption of alternative sources of power, researchers are looking at extracting energy from magnesium which stores a lot of energy.

(d) Researchers are devising ways to extract energy form magnesium, as magnesium stores a lot of energy compared to the bulky dry cells and hydrogen.

(e) Alternative energy researchers are now turning their attention towards magnesium which stores a lot of energy and because dry cells and hydrogen are difficult to handle.

Q9. Many preventive measures for cognitive decline and for preventing Alzheimer’s disease – mental stimulation, exercise, and a variety of dietary supplements – have been studied over the years. However, an independent panel convened this week by the National Institutes of Health determined that the value of these strategies for delaying the onset and/or reducing the severity of decline or disease hasn’t been demonstrated in rigorous studies. Alzheimer’s disease is a feared and heart-breaking disease, we wish we could tell people that taking a pill or doing a puzzle every day would prevent this terrible disease, but current evidence doesn’t support this.

(a) The National Institutes of Health has determined that the strategies for delaying, reducing the severity of Alzheimer’s disease hasn’t been demonstrated in rigorous studies.

(b) Alzheimer’s disease cannot be prevented, delayed or its severity reduced by medication or through mental exercises.

(c) There is no evidence whether Alzheimer’s disease can be prevented, delayed or its severity reduced by pills or by doing puzzles.

(d) An independent panel convened by the National Institutes of Health has determined that medication or solving puzzle does not affect Alzheimer’s disease.

(e) An independent panel convened by the National Institutes of Health has reported that it has found insufficient evidence to support preventive measures for Alzheimer’s disease.

Q10. The mass production of optical mice has made the highly sophisticated sensors on which they rely very inexpensive. Additionally, advances in electronics and optics have yielded sensors that are both small and extremely precise. A generic optical mouse, costing only a few dollars, is capable of capturing and comparing surface images several thousand times per second. Often, this high resolution enables their use on a variety of surfaces-both traditional and ad hoc (e.g., palms, pants, bed covers).

(a) Advances in electronic and optics have facilitated the use of highly sophisticated sensors for high precision, low cost, multi-surface optical tracking in generic optical mice.

(b) The mass production of optical mice has made the optical sensors inexpensive; sensors are now cheap, precise and can be used on any surface.

(c) Mass production and advances in electronics and optics have yielded sensors that are cheap, high resolution, and capable of being used on any surface.

(d) Advances in technology and mass production have made the generic optical mice capable of high precision, low cost, and multi-surface optical tracking.

(e) Advances in technology and mass production have made the generic optical mice sophisticated devices capable of being used on different surfaces.

Q11. Heating and squishing microalgae in a pressure-cooker can fast-forward the crude-oil-making process from millennia to minutes. University of Michigan professors are working to understand and improve this procedure in an effort to speed up development of affordable bio-fuels that could replace fossil fuels and power today’s engines. They are also examining the possibility of other new fuel sources such as E. coli bacteria that would feed on waste products from previous bio-oil batches.

(a) Professors at Michigan University are working to understand and improve the making of affordable bio-fuels to replace fossil fuels and then convert the waste further into fuel.

(b) University of Michigan professors are working towards pressure-cooking algae into bio-fuel and seeking to use E. coli to further convert the waste into bio-fuel.

(c) University of Michigan professors are working towards pressure-cooking algae into bio-fuel and seeking to recycle the waste into new source material for future fuel batches.

(d) University of Michigan professors are working towards converting microalgae into bio-fuel and seeking to recycle the waste into new source material for future fuel batches.

(e) None of the above

Q12. Whales seem to stir up strong feelings. For conservationists, the majestic mammals have been in urgent need of protection ever since factory ships began slaughtering them in the middle of the last century. But advocates of whaling present themselves as protectors of traditional culture, diets, and the rights of indigenous people. It is difficult to find any common ground, even when an honest attempt is made.

(a) Advocates present traditional culture, diets, and people’s rights, and conservationists cite the need for protection for and against whaling.

(b) It is difficult to find any common ground in the arguments of conservationists and advocates of whaling – except that both are emotional.

(c) Whales stir up strong feelings in conservationists as well as advocates of whaling – with valid and irreconcilable reasoning on both sides.

(d) Other than strong feelings the arguments of people who are for and against whaling are irreconcilable.

(e) None of the above

Q13. Although new battery technologies are emerging, their weight and size is likely to remain a drag on the development of electric and hybrid cars, forcing manufacturers to come up with new and inventive ways to shed weight and free up space. One solution which researchers are exploring is to build cars using a hybrid material: a carbon composite that is also capable of storing electrical energy. That way, car designers could combine structural form with electrical function.

(a) The manufacturers and designers of electric and hybrid cars are constrained by the weight and size of the batteries; hybrid material seems to be the only solution.

(b) Since manufacturers and designers are constrained by the bulkiness of the batteries, researchers are exploring hybrid material capable of storing electrical energy.

(c) By building cars with multifunction material, researchers are exploring a solution to the weight and size of batteries which are a drag on the development of electric and hybrid cars.

(d) The structural form and function of electric and hybrid cars can be the solution to the bulkiness of the batteries that constrain both the manufacturers and the designers.

(e) None of the above

Q14. The earth’s volcanoes appear for the most part in three types of setting. The most familiar, and most of the most dangerous, are found where one tectonic plate overrides another, as happens in the ring of fire around the Pacific. Then there are those which sit over isolate “hotspots” of upwelling magma from deep in the earth, like the volcanoes of Hawaii. Finally, there are those – a great many, but normally deep under the ocean – formed at the spreading ridges where tectonic plates pull away from each other and new crust is formed. Iceland is peculiarly volcanic because it is formed by the intersection of a hotspot and a mid-ocean ridge.

(a) The earth’s volcanoes exist in three settings: where one tectonic plate overrides another, over hotspots of upwelling magma, and under the oceans where plates are moving apart.

(b) There are three types of volcanoes: the most dangerous ones over the tectonic plates, over the isolated hotspots of upwelling, and on ocean beds at the ridges of tectonic plates.

(c) Volcanoes are of three types: where one tectonic plate overrides another, over hotspots of magma upwelling from within the earth, and ones at the spreading ridges where tectonic plates pull away from each other.

(d) The earth’s volcanoes appear in three types: where one tectonic plate overrides another, over hotspots of upwelling magma, and where plates are moving apart.

(e) None of the above

Q15. It sounds implausible. Roboticists have struggled for decades to understand bipedal locomotion, and even today’s most sophisticated robots require huge amounts of energy and computer power to walk on two legs. But Dr Herr's credentials are sound. He is a leading authority on the biomechanics of legs, and in the past decade he has made several advances in the development of artificial legs and assistive walking devices, or “orthoses,” enabling amputees to walk with a more natural gait than was previously possible.

(a) It is an unbelievable task that Dr. Herr has achieved in developing assistive walking devices, or “orthoses”; roboticists are still far away from understanding bipedal locomotion.

(b) Even when robots consume huge computing power and energy to walk, Dr Herr’s “orthoses,” enable amputees to walk with a more natural gait.

(c) Dr Herr’s “orthoses” or assistive devices for amputees challenge the roboticists who have failed to simulate bipedal motion without consuming huge computer power and energy.

(d) Dr Herr has been successful in developing “orthoses” enabling amputees to walk with a natural gait; even sophisticated robots haven’t come close to natural bipedal locomotion.

(e) None of the above

Solutions

S1. Ans.(b)

Sol. The following are the highlights of the paragraph: … sustainable global society of low CO₂ emitters requires a tremendous effort. … shared ethical basis. …a comprehensive solution … politicians. … Nation states … business community and citizens …scientific necessity; it is an ethical imperative. Except for not specifying the politicians, business etc. Option (B) captures everything (it states nations and citizens – which can accommodate all). The other options on careful examination can be seen to distort something or the other.

S2. Ans.(d)

Sol. Option (A) has the vague “poor” in it. Option (B) misses out the “if they are to be allowed part” which is significant to the précis. Option (C) states “they are likely to charge” – the paragraph mentions only the unscrupulous elements may do this. Option (E) assumes only students with low scores etc., will go to these universities. Option (D) is the best choice, with the least problems.

S3. Ans.(a)

Sol. The paragraph is about how nutrition is important for child’s mental and physical wellbeing – this begins in the womb, and continues into adult life. This essence is captured by option (A). The other options highlight the specifics of the paragraph. Though not incorrect, they struggle to include the details and miss the “essence” of the paragraph.

S4. Ans.(b)

Sol. Options (A) and (C) specifically explain the plumage of peacocks and the stag’s antlers – these are examples for bright colours or oversize horns and such other traits. Hence, though correct the purpose of the paragraph is general. Option (D) is also alright except that it does not specify why the males fight. Option (E) is incorrect in “male domination of the female.”

S5. Ans.(c)

Sol. Only option (C) mentions “restrictions on carbon emissions” and includes what other options elaborate on.

S6. Ans.(e)

Sol. “ultimate failure” eliminates option (A). No mention of “hydrogen enterprise” eliminates option (B). “cannot succeed” eliminates option (C). Option (D) in comparison to (E) does not explain “lightness.” Option (E) is brief and to the point.

S7. Ans.(a)

Sol. The main points are Criminals watch television … changing their behaviour … (examples) cover their tracks … for new kinds of evidence … problems with the tracking and storage of evidence. The last point is not mentioned in any of the options. Option (A) has these points and does not distort any of the points. Option (B) emphasizes bleach etc., rather than the gist. Option (C) is correct but loses out top option (A) because of phrasing – option (A) is better phrased. Option (D) is similar to option (B). Option (E) does not specify the problem. In comparison, option (A) is the best.

S8. Ans.(c)

Sol. Option (A) completely misses the point in “conventional sources” – the paragraph is about “alternative sources.” Option (B) is correct but emphasizes the problem with hydrogen and dry cells whereas the first sentence states the problem explicitly as storing – hydrogen and dry cells are examples. Option (D) misses the “alternative energy” part. Option (E) “difficult to handle” is vague; and the emphasis has shifted as in option (B).

S9. Ans.(e)

Sol. Option (A), (B) and (C) are either erroneous or incomplete as they omit the independent panel. Between option (D) and (E), it is an easy choice in favour of option (E) as option (D) is too general and vague.

S10. Ans.(d)

Sol. Option (A) misses mass production. Option (B) misses “advances in technology.” Option (C) confuses sensors with mice. Option (D) does not distort the message. Option (E) misses high resolution, inexpensive etc.

S11. Ans.(c)

Sol. Option (A) does not mention the microalgae part. Option (B) is unnecessarily specific about E. coli-the paragraph states “such as E. coli bacteria.” Option (D) is correct but does not tell us how the algae can be converted into bio fuel which option (C) does. Option (C) best captures the essence.

S12. Ans.(c)

Sol. Option (C) is closes to the given paragraph. Option (A) leaves out the feelings part which is central to the paragraph. Option (B) is a miscommunication. The paragraph talks about strong feelings forestalling a compromise – the purpose is not to suggest that they are merely emotional. Option (D) is meaningless – one cannot make sense of it, especially in the light of the paragraph.

S13. Ans.(c)

Sol. Option (B) would have been the best option if it had mentioned “hybrid material to build cars.” As it stands the summary states they are exploring hybrid material which is incomplete. “…only solution” eliminates option (A). Option (D) is a sadly inadequate précis and unclear.

S14. Ans.(a)

Sol. According to the paragraph volcanoes exist in three settings; there is no need to interpret this as three types of volcanoes – there may even be many types within these settings. Though the other options are not as concise as option (A), they also have other deficiencies missing out on important part like under the ocean etc. Option (A) captures the essence of the paragraph.

S15. Ans.(d)

Sol. Option (A) states “far away from understanding bipedal locomotion” – it is the computing power and energy that are the issues, hence this is a distortion. Option (C) is eliminated because of “challenge the roboticists…” which is incorrect. Between options (B) and (D), option (D) scores over (B) only for the reason that “even sophisticated robots haven’t come close to natural bipedal locomotion” is better than “robots consume huge computing power and energy to walk” in the light of the purpose of the paragraph – the energy factor only reinforces the difficulty of mastering “natural bipedal locomotion.”

English Practice set for IBPS, IPPB, LIC etc.

Directions: In questions 1 to 5, some of the sentence have errors and some are correct. Find our which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from errors, mark option (d) as your answer.

1. Had you (A)/ worked hard (B)/ you will have. (C) No error (D).


2. He works hardly (A)/ to make (B)/ both ends meet. (C) No error (D)


3. Neither of these two documents (A)/ support your claim (B)/ on the property. (C) No error (D)


4. Get this book (A)/ be published (B)/ in time. (C) No error (D)


5. He (A)/ is junior than (B)/ all his friends. (C) No error (D)

Directions (Q. No. 6-10) sentence are given with blanks to be filled in with appropriate word (s). Four alternative are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

6. ........of defence personnel would be given transfers to their place of choice.

(A)          Friends                                   (B) Wives

(C) Husbands                       (D) Spouses

7. Sachin was standing ......... me.

(A) aside                                     (B) next

(C) beside                                   (D) besides

8. My sister and ............. are pleased to accept your invitation.

(A) I                                            (B) me

(C) myself                                  (D) I myself

9. Have you got any idea as to what has happened to Akila? I haven't seen her ......... .

(A) lately                                    (B) later on

(C) late                                       (D) later

10. I ........ hard to establish the validity of the theory from morning.

(A) have been trying                (B) had tried

(C) tried                                      (D) am trying

Directions (Q. No. 11-15) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

11. Nature

(A) To encourage                     (B) To grow

(C) To see                                  (D) To maintain

12. Deny

(A) Regain                                 (B) Refuse

(C) Repair                                  (D) Reduce

13. Abuse

(A) Use                                       (B) Praise

(C) Scorn                                    (D) Raise

14. Docile

(A) Submissive                          (B) Stubborn

(C) Strong                                  (D) Changeable

15. Considerate

(A) Agreeable                            (B) Kind

(C) Like minded                       (D) Thoughtful

Directions (Q. No. 16 to 70) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given world.

16. Veneration

(A) Fear                                      (B) Reverence

(C) Remorse                              (D) Disrespect

17. Insolent

(A) Ignorant                              (B) Proud

(C) Laudable                             (D) Humble

18. Urban

(A) Rustic                                   (B) Rural

(C) Civil                                      (D) Foreign

19. Incredible

(A) Possible                                (B) Believable

(C) Enjoyable                           (D) Imaginary

20. Concur

(A) Disagree                               (B) Disappear

(C) Disarrange                           (D) Discourage

Directions (Q. No. 21 to 25) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given Idiom/Phrase.

21. Status quo

(A) Unchanged position          (B) Excellent place

(C) Unbreakable statue           (D) Long queue

22. By frail means or foul

(A) Without using common sense

(B) Without difficulty

(C) In any way, honest or dishonest

(D) Having been instigated

23. To bring to light

(A) To reveal                             (B) To conceal

(C) To provide luminescence (D) To appeal

24. To hit the jackpot

(A) To gamble

(B) To get an unexpected victory

(C) To be wealthy                    (D) To make money quickly

25. To burn the candle at both ends

(A) To spend cautiously          (B) to be stingy

(C) To be extravagant             (D) To survive difficulty

Directions (Q. No. 26 to 30) In the questions, a part of the sentences is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

26. It was quite clear that the runner could be able to improve upon his own record.

(A) will be able                          (B) should be able

(C) would be able                     (D) No improvement

27. This work of art is worthy to praise.

(A) for                                         (B) of

(C) about                                   (D) No improvement

28. To alleviate the pain of losing his only son, he took up meditation.

(A) lessen                                   (B) minimalise

(C) lesson                                   (D) No improvement

29. The Prime Minister established a commission to look after the plight of the widows.

(A) formed                                 (B) created

(C) set up                                   (D) No improvement

30. Rakesh didn't knew my address.

(A) didn't known                       (B) didn't have

(C) didn't know                         (D) No improvement

Directions (Q. No. 31 to 35) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words sentence.

31. The act or practice of spying

(A) Strategy                               (B) Espionage

(C) Diplomacy                          (D) Enumeration

32. Expressions of sympathy

(A) Congratulation                   (B) Condolence

(C) Compliment                       (D) Condemnation

33. An instrument used to record sound

(A) Gramophone                      (B) Hydrophone

(C) Phonograph                        (D) Megaphone

34. Person with whom one works

(A) Contemporary                   (B) Companion

(C) Colleague                            (D) Partner

35. Honesty of character

(A) Integrity                               (B) Rectitude

(C) Honour                                (D) Dignity

Directions (Q. No. 36 to 40) In these questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

36. (A) Secretariel                          (B) Secreterel

(C)  Secreterial                          (D) Secretarial

37. (A) Aquisition                           (B) Acquizition

(C) Acquisition                          (D) Acquisision

38. (A) Vaccation                          (B) Vocation

(C) Vecation                              (D) Vecasion

39. (A) Gaurd                                  (B) Gard

(C) Guard                                   (D) Garad

40. (A) Coreigible                           (B) Coraegible

(C) Correigible                           (D) Corrigible

Directions (Q. No. 41 to 50) In the following passage, some of the words, have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

The word 'ticket' is (41) to every language in India. (42) those who are actively (43), in the political process (44) a ticket as permission to (45) an election as candidate (46) a political party. The (47) if elected, sits in the (48) assembly, or any other (49) for which he/she contests, as (50) of that party.

41. (A) general (B) peculiar

(C) common                              (D) familiar

42. (A) so (B) but

(C) and                                       (D) since

43. (A) involved (B) seen

(C) leading                                 (D) attracted

44. (A) look (B) interpret

(C) interfere                               (D) interrupt

45. (A) stand in (B) campaign

(C) vote                                      (D) contest

46. (A) inside (B) of

(C) for                                         (D) to

47. (A) leader (B) party

(C) candidate                            (D) ticket

48. (A) legislative (B) legal

(C) political                                (D) electoral

49. (A) body (B) election

(C) party                                    (D) institute

50. (A) candidate (B) participant

(C) representative                     (D) interpreter

 

English Practice set for IBPS, IPPB, LIC etc.

Directions: In Question No. 1 to 5, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

1. JETTISON

(A)  Accept    (B) Reward       (C) Preserve              (D) Consent

2. AMELIORATE

(A)  Improve  (B) Depend      (C) Soften                 (D) Worsen

3. GROTESQUE

(A) Natural    (B) Odd              (C) Whimsical          (D) Sinful

4. DEVIOUS

(A)  Straight  (B) Obvious       (C) Simple      (D) Superficial

5. EVANESCENT

(A)  Imminent   (B) Permanent (C) Pervasive        (D) Immanent

Directions: In question No. 6 to 10, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

6. DEBACLE

(A)  Decline                               (B) Downfall

(C) Discomfiture                       (D) Degeneration

7. OSTRACISE

(A)  Banish  (B) Belittle           (C) Beguile               (D) Besiege

8. PROPHYLACTIC

(A) Antagonistic                       (B) Toxic

(C) Preventive                           (D) Purgative

9. CODDLE

(A)  Huddle (B) Satisfy           (C) Protect                (D) Cheat

10. FLIMSY

(A)  Funny  (B) Irrational       (C) Weak  (D) Partisan

Directions: In question No. 11 to 15, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternative to the underlined part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d).

11. To get into the building I'll disguise as a reporter.

(A) disguise to be                      (B) disguise as one

(C) disguise myself                   (D) No improvement

12. He denied that he had not forged my signature.

(A)  would not forge                (B) had forged

(C) did not forge                       (D) No improvement

13. If I had played will, I would have won the match.

(A) I played well                       (B) I play well

(C) I am playing well               (D) No improvement

14. Since the records are missing, the possibility of paying more than one compensation for the same piece of land           cannot be ruled aside.

(A)  out                                       (B) off

(C) away                                    (D) No improvement

15. A callous system generate, nothing but a misanthrope.

(A) develops                              (B) induces

(C)  produces                            (D) No improvement

Directions: In Question No. 16 to 20, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

16. One who hides away on a ship to obtain a free passage.

(A) Compositor                         (B) Stoker

(C) Stowaway                           (D) Shipwright

17. Clues available at a scene

(A) Circumstantial                   (B) Derivative

(C) Inferential                           (D) Suggestive

18. An unexpected piece of good fortune

(A) Windfall                              (B) Philanthropy

(C) Benevolence                       (D) Turnstile

19. An emolument over an above fixed income or salary.

(A) Honorarium                        (B) Sinecure

(C) Perquisite                             (D) Prerogative

20. The animals of a particular region

(A) Flora (B) Museum             (C) Zoo     (D) Fauna

Directions: In question No. 21 to 25, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

21. (A) Parapharnelia (B) Parsimonious

(C) Peccadilo                             (D) Pcadiatrics

22. (A) Measureable (B) Manageable

(C) Marriagable                        (D) Maoevrable

23. (A) Tussel (B) Tunnle

(C) Tumbled                              (D) Trable

24. (A) Populus (B) Pompuous

(C) Prelious                                (D) Presumptuous

25. (A) Impromptue (B) Illustrious

(C) Illusery                                 (D) Impetous

Directions: In question no. 26 to 30, the 1st and the last sentence of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is spilt into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct.

26. 1. The most vulnerable section of the society are the students.


27. Revolutionary and new fledged ideas have a great appeal to them.


28. Agitations may be non-violent methods of protest.


29. They cannot resist the charm of persuasion.


30. They are to be taught that without discipline they cannot get proper education.


31. However if these become violent, the antisocial elements get encouraged and they put all proper working out of gear.

(A) PRSQ    (B) RSQP              (C) SRPQ  (D) RPQS

27. 1. Venice is a strange city.


28. There are about 400 odd bridges connecting the islands of Venice.


29. There are no motor cars, no horses and no buses there.


30. These small islands are close to one another.


31. It is not one island but a hundred islands.


32. This is because Venice has no streets.

(A) SRPQ    (B) PSRQ              (C) RQPS  (D) QSRP

28. 1. One of the most terrible battles of the American Civil War was fought in July 1863, at Gettysburg.


29. The chief speech on that occasion was given by Edward Everett, a celebrated orator.


30. Lincoln was asked to make a few remarks.


31. In November of that y3ear a portion of the battlefield was dedicated as a final resting-place for men of both armies who died there.


32. Everett's speech lasted 2 hours; Lincoln's for 2 minutes; it was over almost before the crowd realized that it had begun.


33. But the Gettysburg speech, is now one of the world's immortal pieces of literature.

(A) SQRP   (B) RPQS               (C) PQRS (D) QPSR

29. 1. The teacher training agency in England hopes to make teaching one of the top three professions.


30. They have also demanded that the campaign should be matched by improved pay scales, work load and morale so as to avoid recruitment problems with and aim to raise the image of the teaching profession.


31. A series of advertisements are now being screened showing famous people speaking about teachers the remember and admire.


32. An amount of $ 100 million has been set aside to combat the shortage of applicants for teacher training.


33. Teacher Unions have welcomed this campaign.


34. It is high time for the Indian Government also to think on similar lines and take steps to lift up the sinking morale of the teaching profession.

(A) QRPS   (B) RPSQ               (C) RQSP  (D) QPSR

30. 1. Some say that failure is like toxic waste.


31. I see failure more as a fertilizer.


32. Thinking about it pollutes and undermines the attitudes needed for success.


33. The seeds of success must be planted afresh.


34. It can be used to enrich the soil of your mind.


35. Turning failure into a fertilizer is accomplished by using your errors as steps in learning.

(A) SRQP  (B) PQSR                (C) SPQR (D) QPSR

Directions: In questions no. 31 to 35, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice, Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

31. The agent had disclosed the secret before it was evening.

(A) The secret was disclosed by the agent before it was evening.

(B)  The secret had disclosed by the agent before it had been evening

(C) The secret had been disclosed by the agent before it was evening

(D) The secret was disclosed by the agent before it had been evening

32. Surely the lost child must have been found by now.

(A) Surely must have found the lost child by now

(B) Surely some one must have found the lost child by now

(C)  Surely now must have found the lost child

(D)  Now must have found the lost child surely

33. We serve hot meals till 10.30, guests can order coffee and sandwiches upto 11.30.

(A) Hot meals are serving till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches are ordering by guests till 11.30

(B)  How meals are being served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches are being ordered till 11.30

(C) Hot meals are served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches may be ordered till 11.30

(D)  How meals will be served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches will be ordered upto 11.30

34. Lie face-down; stretch your arms in front.

(A) You are face-down, arms are to be outstretched

(B)  You should be lying face-down, with arms outstretched

(C)  You should be lying face down; let arms stretch out

(D)  Let face be down; let arms be stretched out

35. The Greeks expected to win the international trophy.

(A) It was expected that the Greeks would win the international trophy

(B)  The international trophy was expected to be won by the Greeks

(C) It was expected that the Greeks will win the international trophy

(D) It was expected by the Greeks that they would win the international trophy

Directions: In Questions No. 36 to 40, you have a brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each questions out of the four alternatives.

PASSAGE

In may 1966, the World Health Organization was authorized to initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eradicate the disease in one decade. Because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated; but eleven years after the initial organization of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.

The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations, but also to isolate patients with active small-pox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission. Rewards for reporting small-pox assisted in motivating the public to aid health workers. One by one, each small-pox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the victim had lived was vaccinated.

36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

(A) The World Health Organization

(B) The Eradication of Small-pox

(C) Small-pox Vaccinations

(D) To provide mass vaccinations against small-pox worldwide

37. What was the goal of the campaign against small-pox?

(A) To decrease the spread of smallpox worldwide

(B) To eliminate small-pox worldwide in ten years

(C)  To provide mass vaccinations against small-pox worldwide

(D)  To initiate worldwide projects for small-pox, malaria and yellow fever at the same time

38. According to the paragraph, what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of small-pox?

(A) Vaccination of the entire village

(B) Treatment of individual victims

(C) Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations

(D) Extensive reporting of outbreaks

39. Which statement doesn't refer to small-pox?

(A) Previous projects has failed.

(B) People are no longer vaccinated for it.

(C) The World Health Organization mounted a world wide campaign to eradicate the disease.

(D)  It was a serious threat.

40. It can be inferred that

(A) no year cases of small-pox have been reported this year.

(B) malaria and yellow fever have been eliminated.

(C) small-pox victims no longer die when they contract the disease.

(D)  small-pox is not transmitted from one person to another.

Directions: In Question no. 41 to 45. some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If there is no error, your answer is (d).

41. Judge in him (A)/ prevailed upon the father (B)/ and he sentenced his son to death. (C)/ No error (D)


42. Nine tenths (A)/ of the pillar (B)/ have rotted away. (C)/ No error (D)


43. One major reason (A)/ for the popularity of television is (B)/ that most people like to stay at home. (C)/ No error (D)


44. Our efforts are aimed (A)/ to bring about (B)/ a reconciliation. (C)/ No error (D)


45. There conditions critical (A)/ for growing plants are (B)/ soil, temperature, chemical balance or amount of moisture. (C)/ No error (D)

Directions: In question no. 46 to 50, sentences are given with blank to be filled in the with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

46. The court...............cognisance of the criminal's words.

(A) took   (B) made                  (C) gave    (D) allowed

47. ................wins this civil war there will be little rejoicing at the victory.

(A)  Whichever  (B) Whoever    (C) Whatever        (D) Wherever

48. As he got older his belief in thee principles did not..............

(A) wither (B) shake                 (C) waver (D) dither

49. Everyone in this world is accountable to God............ his actions.

(A) about (B) for                      (C) to         (D) over

50. Your father used to be the principal of this college...........

(A) did he? (B) does he?  (C) didn't he? (D) doesn't he?

 

 

Answer Sheet-1
1.	(A)	2.	(D)	3.	(A)	4.	(A)	5.	(B)
6.	(B)	7.	(A)	8.	(C)	9.	(C)	10.	(C)
11.	(C)	12.	(B)	13.	(D)	14.	(A)	15.	(C)
16.	(C)	17.	(A)	18.	(A)	19.	(A)	20.	(D)
21.	(B)	22.	(B)	23.	(C)	24.	(D)	25.	(B)
26.	(A)	27.	(A)	28.	(B)	29.	(C)	30.	(D)
31.	(C)	32.	(B)	33.	(C)	34.	(D)	35.	(B)
36.	(B)	37.	(B)	38.	(C)	39.	(A)	40.	(A)
41.	(B)	42.	(C)	43.	(C)	44.	(B)	45.	(C)
46.	(A)	47.	(B)	48.	(C)	49.	(B)	50.	(C)

Surface Area (Maths) Test in Hindi & English Language (Part-3)

61.  The perimeter of a right-angled triangle is 60 cm. Its hypotenuse is 26 cm. The area of the triangle is:		61. एक समकोंण त्रिभुज का परिमाप 60 सेमी. है यदि उसका विकर्ण 26 सेमी. हो तो उसका क्षेत्रफल क्या है?
(a) 120 cm2	(b) 240 cm2	(a) 120 cm2	(b) 240 cm2
(c) 390 cm2	(d) 780 cm2	(c) 390 cm2	(d) 780 cm2
62.  If the perimeter of an isosceles right triangle is right triangle is m, then the area of the triangle is:		62. यदि समद्विबाहु समकोंण त्रिभुज का परिमाप  मी. है तो त्रिभुज का क्षेत्रफल कितना है?1
(a) 4.5 m2	(b) 5.4 m2	(a) 4.5 m2	(b) 5.4 m2
(c) 9 m2	(d) 81 m2	(c) 9 m2	(d) 81 m2
63.  The perimeter of a triangle is 30 cm and its area is 30 cm2. If the largest side measures 13 cm, then what is the length of the smallest side of the triangle?		63. एक त्रिभुज का परिमाप 30 सेमी. तथा क्षेत्रफल 30 वर्ग सेमी. है। यदि उसकी सबसे बड़ी भुजा 13 सेमी. हो तो सबसे छोटी भुजा की माप क्या है?
(a) 3 cm	(b) 4 cm	(a) 3 cm	(b) 4 cm
(c) 5 cm	(d) 6 cm	(c) 5 cm	(d) 6 cm
64.  The height of an equilateral triangle is 10 cm. Its area is:		64. एक समबाहु त्रिभुज की ऊँचाई 10 सेमी. है तो उसका क्षेत्रफल क्या है?
(a)	(b) 30 cm2	(a)	(b) 30 cm2
(c) 100 cm2	(d)	(c) 100 cm2	(d)
65.  If the area of a square with side a is equal to the area of a triangle with base a, then the altitude of the triangle is:		65. यदि एक वर्ग का क्षेत्रफल त्रिभुज के क्षेत्रफल के बराबर हो तो त्रिभुज की ऊँचाई कितनी होगी। यदि दोनों के आधार ं समान है।
(a)	(b) a	(a)	(b) a
(c) 2a	(d) 4a	(c) 2a	(d) 4a
66.  An equilateral triangle is described on the diagonal of a square. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle to that of the square?		66. एक समबाहु त्रिभुज किसी वर्ग के विकर्ण को लेकर बनाया गया तो त्रिभुज और वर्ग के क्षेत्रफलांे के बीच अनुपात क्या होगा?
(a)	(b)	(a)	(b)
(c)	(d)	(c)	(d)
67.  What will be the ratio between the area of a rectangle and the area of a triangle with one of the sides of the rectangle as based an a vertex on the opposite side of the rectangle?		67. एक आयत और त्रिभुज के क्षेत्रफलांे के बीच अनुपात क्या होगा। यदि त्रिभुज का एक शीर्ष आयत की एक भुजा पर हो तथा उसके विपरीत दूसरी भुजा उसका आधार हो।
(a) 1 : 2	(b) 2 : 1	(a) 1 : 2	(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 1	(d) Data inadequate	(c) 3 : 1	(d) आँकड़े अपर्याप्त हैं
(e) None of these		(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं
68.  If an equilateral triangle of area X and a square of area Y have the same perimeter, then X is:		68. एक समबाहु त्रिभुज जिसका क्षेत्रफल ग् और एक वर्ग जिसका क्षेत्रफल ल् है। यदि दोनों का परिमाप समान हो तो ग् का मान क्या होगा?
(a) equal to Y	(b) greater than Y	(a) Y के बराबर	(b)  Y  से बड़ा
(c) less than Y	(d) less than or equal to Y	(c) Y से छोटा	(d) Y से छोटा या बड़ा
69.  The ratio of bases of two triangles is x : y and that of their areas is a : b. Then the ratio of their corresponding altitudes will be:		69. दो त्रिभुजों के आधारों के बीच अनुपात x : y और क्षेत्रफलों के बीच अनुपात a : b है तो उनकी संगत ऊँचाईयांे के बीच अनुपात क्या होगा?
(a) ax : by	(b)	(a) ax : by	(b)
(c) ay : bx	(d)	(c) ay : bx	(d)
70.  If the side of an equilateral triangle is decreased by 20%, its area is decreased by :		70. यदि एक समबाहु त्रिभुज की भुजा 20ः कम कर दी जाये तो उसका क्षेत्रफल कितने प्रतिशत कम हो जायेगा।
(a) 36%	(b) 40%	(a) 36%	(b) 40%
(c) 60%	(d) 64%	(c) 60%	(d) 64%
71.  If the height of a triangle is decreased by 40% and its base is increased by 40%, what will be the effect on its area?		71. यदि त्रिभुज की ऊँचाई 40ः कम कर दी जाये और उसका आधार 40ः बढ़ा दिया जाये तो उसके क्षेत्रफल पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ेगा।
(a) No change	(b) 8% decrease	(a) कोई परिवर्तन नहीं	(b) 8% कम हो जायेगा
(c) 16% decrease	(d) 16% increase	(c) 16% कम हो जायेगा	(d) 16% बड़ जायेगा
(e) None of these		(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं
72.  If every side of a triangle is doubled, the area of the new triangle is K times the area of the old one. K is equal to:		72. यदि त्रिभुज की सभी भुजायंे दोगुनी कर दी जायें तो बनें नये त्रिभुज का क्षेत्रफल ज्ञ गुना हो जाता है तो ज्ञ का मान क्या होगा?
(a)	(b) 2	(a)	(b) 2
(c) 3	(d) 4	(c) 3	(d) 4
73.  A triangle and a parallelogram are constructed on the same base such that their areas are equal. If the altitude of the parallelogram is 100 m, then the altitude of the triangle is:		73. एक त्रिभुज और एक समान्तर  चतुर्भुज एक ही आधार पर बनाये गये जिनके क्षेत्रफल समान है। यदि समान्तर चतुर्भुज की ऊँचाई 100 मीटर हो तो त्रिभुज की ऊँचाई कितनी है?
(a) m	(b) 100 m	(a) m	(b) 100 m
(c) m	(d) 200 m	(c) m	(d) 200 m
74.  The area of a rhombus is 150 cm2. The length of one of its diagonals is 10 cm. The length of the other diagonal is:		74. एक सम चतुर्भुज का क्षेत्रफल 150 वर्ग सेमी. है यदि उसका एक विकर्ण 10 सेमी. हो तो दूसरे विकर्ण की लम्बाई क्या है।
(a) 25 cm	(b) 30 cm	(a) 25 cm	(b) 30 cm
(c) 35 cm	(d) 40 cm	(c) 35 cm	(d) 40 cm
75.  One of the diagonals of a rhombus is double the other diagonal. Is area is 25 sq. cm. The sum of the diagonals is:		75. एक सम चतुर्भुंज का विकर्ण दूसरे विकर्ण का दो गुना यदि उसका क्षेत्रफल 25 वर्ग सेमी. हो तो विकर्णों का योगफल कितना है?
(a) 10 cm	(b) 12 cm	(a) 10 cm	(b) 12 cm
(c) 15 cm	(d) 16 cm	(c) 15 cm	(d) 16 cm
76.  Each side of a rhombus is 26 cm and one of its diagonals is 48 cm long. The area of the rhombus is:		76. एक सम चतुर्भुज की प्रत्येक भुजा 26 सेमी. की है यदि  उसका एक विकर्ण 48 सेमी. लम्बा हो तो उसका क्षेत्रफल कितना होगा?
(a) 240 cm2	(b) 300 cm2	(a) 240 cm2	(b) 300 cm2
(c) 360 cm2	(d) 480 cm2	(c) 360 cm2	(d) 480 cm2
77.  The area of a field in the shape of a trapezium measures 1440 m2. The perpendicular distance between its parallel sides is 24 m. If the ratio of the parallel sides is 5 : 3, the length of the longer parallel side is:		77. एक समलम्ब आकार के क्षेत्र का क्षेत्रफल 1440 वर्ग मीटर है यदि दो समान्तर भुजाआंे के बीच की लम्बवत् दूरी 24 मी. हो और समान्तर भुजाआंे के बीच 5: 3 का अनुपात हो तो बड़ी समान्तर भुजा क्या होगी।
(a) 45 m	(b) 60 m	(a) 45 m	(b) 60 m
(c) 75 m	(d) 120 m	(c) 75 m	(d) 120 m
78.  The area of a circle of radius 5 is numerically what percent of its circumference?		78. एक वृत्त की त्रिज्या 5 सेमी. है तो आंकिक रूप से उसका क्षेत्रफल परिधि का कितने प्रतिशत होगा?
(a) 200	(b) 225	(a) 200	(b) 225
(c) 240	(d) 250	(c) 240	(d) 250
79.  A man runs round a circular filed of radius 50 m at the speed of 12 km/ hr. What is the time taken by the man to take twenty rounds of the field?		79. एक व्यक्ति 50 मी. त्रिज्या के वृत्ताकार मार्ग पर 12 किमी./घंटे की चाल से चक्कर लगाता है। इसके बीच 20 चक्कर लगाने में कितनी दूरी तय करेगा।
(a) 30 min	(b) 32 min	(a) 30 min	(b) 32 min
(c) 34 min	(d) None of these	(c) 34 min	(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
80.  A cow is tethered in the middle of a field with a 14 feet long rope. If the cow grazes 100 sq. ft. per day, then approximately what time will be taken by the cow to graze the whole field?		80. एक गाय एक मैदान के बीचोंबंीच 14 फीट लम्बी रस्सी से बंधी है। यदि वह 100 वर्ग फीट घास रोजाना चरती हो तो मैदान की पूरी घास चरने में लगभग कितना समय लगेगा
(a) 2 days	(b) 6 days	(a) 2 days	(b) 6 days
(c) 18 days	(d) 24 days	(c) 18 days	(d) 24 days
(e) None of these		(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं
81.  A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter. The sides of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26 cm. What is the area of the circle?		81. एक वृत्त तथा आयत के परिमाप समान है यदि आयत की भुजायंे 18 तथा 26 सेमी. हों तो वृत्त का क्षेत्रफल कितना है।
(a) 88 cm2	(b) 154 cm2	(a) 88 cm2	(b) 154 cm2
(c) 1250 cm2	(d) Cannot be determined	(c) 1250 cm2	(d) ज्ञात नहीं कर सकते
(e) None of these		(e) इनमंे से कोई नहीं
82.  The circumference of a circle, whose area is 24.64 m2, is:		82. उस वृत्त की परिधि क्या होगी जिसका क्षेत्रफल 24.64 वर्ग मी. हो।
(a) 14.64 m	(b) 16.36 m	(a) 14.64 m	(b) 16.36 m
(c) 17.60 m	(d) 18.40 m	(c) 17.60 m	(d) 18.40 m
83.  If the circumference and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then the diameter is equal to:		83. किसी वृत्त की परिधि तथा क्षेत्रफल आंकिक रूप से समान है तो उसका व्यास कितना होगा।
(a)	(b) 2	(a)	(b) 2
(c) 2	(d) 4	(c) 2	(d) 4
84.  The difference between the circumference and the radius of a circle is 37 cm. The area of the circle is:		84.  किसी वृत्त की परिधि और उसकी त्रिज्या के बीच अंतर 37 सेमी. है तो वृत्त का क्षेत्रफल क्या होगा?
(a) 111 cm2	(b) 148 cm2	(a) 111 cm2	(b) 148 cm2
(c) 154 cm2	(d) 259 cm2	(c) 154 cm2	(d) 259 cm2
85.  Between a square of perimeter 44 cm and a circle of circumference 44 cm, which figure has larger area and by how much?		85. एक वर्ग का परिमाप और वृत्त की परिधि समान 44 सेमी. हैं तो किसी आकृति का क्षेत्रफल बड़ा होगा और कितना।
(a) Both have equal area	(b) Square, 33 cm2	(a) दोंनांे का समान	(b)  वर्ग, 33 cm2
(c) Circle, 33 cm2	(d) Square, 495 cm2	(c) वृत्त, 33 cm2	(d)   वर्ग, 495 cm2
86.  A wire can be bent in the form of a circle of radius 56 cm. If it bent in the form of a square, then its area will be:		86. एक तार को वृत्त के आकार में मोड़ा गया जिसकी त्रिज्या 56 सेमी. है यदि उसे वृत्त के आकार में मोड़ा जाये तो उसका क्षेत्रफल कितना होगा?
(a) 3520 cm2	(b) 6400 cm2	(a) 3520 cm2	(b) 6400 cm2
(c) 7744 cm2	(d) 8800 cm2	(c) 7744 cm2	(d) 8800 cm2
87.  A wire when bent in the form of a square encloses and area of 484 sq. cm. What will be the enclosed area when the same wire is bent into the form of a circle?		87. एक तार को वर्ग के रूप मंे मोड़ा गया जो 484 वर्ग सेमी. का क्षेत्रफल घेरता है। यदि इसको वृत्त के रूप मंे मोड़ा जाये तो कितना क्षेत्रफल घेरेगा।
(a) 462 sq. cm	(b) 539 sq. cm	(a) 462 sq. cm	(b) 539 sq. cm
(c) 616 sq. cm	(d) 693 sq. cm	(c) 616 sq. cm	(d) 693 sq. cm
88.  A circle wire of radius 42 cm is bent in the form of a rectangular whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is:		88. एक तार का वृत्त जिसकी त्रिज्या 42 सेमी. है उसे आयत के रूप में मोड़ा गया जिसकी भुजाआंे के बीच 6: 5 का अनुपात है तो आयत की छोटी भुजा क्या होगी?
(a) 25 cm	(b) 30 cm	(a) 25 cm	(b) 30 cm
(c) 36 cm	(d) 60 cm	(c) 36 cm	(d) 60 cm
89.  The areas of two circular fields are in the ratio 16 : 49. If the radius of the latter is 14 m, then what is the radius of the former?		89. दो वृत्ताकार मैदानांे के क्षेत्रफलांे के बीच अनुपात 16: 49 है। यदि बाद वाले की त्रिज्या 14 मी. हो तो पहले वाले की कितनी होगी?
(a) 4 m	(b) 8 m	(a) 4 m	(b) 8 m
(c) 18 m	(d) 32 m	(c) 18 m	(d) 32 m
90.  If the ratio of areas of two circle is 4 : 9, then the ratio of their circumferences will be:		90. यदि दो वृत्तों के बीच क्षेत्रफलांे का अनुपात 4: 9  हो तो उनकी परिधियांे के बीच अनुपात क्या होगा?
(a) 2 : 3	(b) 3 : 2	(a) 2 : 3	(b) 3 : 2
(c) 4 : 9	(d) 9 : 4	(c) 4 : 9	(d) 9 : 4

Surface Area (Maths) Test in Hindi & English Language (Part-2)

31.  2 metres broad pathway is to be constructed around a rectangular plot on the insides. The area of the plot is 96 sq. m. The rate of construction is Rs. 50 per square metre. Find the total cost of the construction.		31. एक आयताकार मैदान के अंदर की तरफ 2 मी. चैड़ा रास्ता बनवाया गया। यदि मैदान का क्षेत्रफल 96 वर्ग मीटर हो तो 50 रू. प्रति वर्ग मीटर की दर से इस रास्ते के निर्माण पर कितना खर्च होगा।
(a) Rs. 2400	(b) Rs. 4000	(a) Rs. 2400	(b) Rs. 4000
(c) Rs. 4800	(d) Data inadequate	(c) Rs. 4800	(d) आँकड़े अपर्यात हैं
(e) None of these		(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं
32.  A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park and rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn in 2109 sq. m, then what is the width of the road.		32. एक आयताकार पार्क 60 मी. लम्बा तथा 40 मी. चैड़ा है। उसके अंदर समकोंण पर काटते हुये दो रास्ते बनंे हैं। उनके अतिरिक्त शेष भाग पर लाॅन बना है। जिसका क्षेत्रफल 2109 वर्ग मी. है तो रास्तों की चैड़ाई कितनी है।
(a) 2.91 m	(b) 3 m	(a) 2.91 m	(b) 3 m
(c) 5.82 m	(d) None of these	(c) 5.82 m	(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
33.  The perimeters of five squares are 24 cm, 32 cm, 40 cm, 76 cm and 80 cm respectively. The perimeter of another square equal in area to the sum of the areas of these squares is:		33. 5 वर्गों के परिमाप क्रमशः 24, 32, 40, 76 तथा 80 सेमी. तथा किसी दूसरे वर्ग का परिमाप क्या होगा। यदि उसका क्षेत्रफल इन पाँचांे के योगफल के बराबर हो।
(a) 31 cm	(b) 62 cm	(a) 31 cm	(b) 62 cm
(c) 124 cm	(d) 961 cm	(c) 124 cm	(d) 961 cm
34.  50 square stone slabs of equal size were needed to cover a floor area of 72 sq. m. The length of each stone slab is:		34. 72 वर्ग मी. वाले फर्श को ढ़कने के लिए 50 वर्गाकार समान आकार पत्थरांे की आवश्यकता पढ़ती है तो प्रत्येक पत्थर की लम्बाई कितनी है।
(a) 102 cm	(b) 120 cm	(a) 102 cm	(b) 120 cm
(c) 201 cm	(d) 210 cm	(c) 201 cm	(d) 210 cm
35.  The length and breadth of the floor of the room are 20 feet and 10 feet respectively. Square tiles of 2 feet length of different colours are to be laid on the floor. Black tiles are laid in the first row on all sides. If white tiles are laid in the one-third of the remaining and blue tiles in the rest, how many blue tiles will be there?		35. एक कमरे की लम्बाई तथा चैड़ाई क्रमशः 20 फीट तथा 10 फीट है। इसके फर्श पर विभिन्न रंगंांे की दो फीट भुजा की टाइल्स लगाई जाती है। काली टाइल्स सभी भुजाआंे की पहली पंक्ति में तथा शेष भाग के 1/3 भाग पर सफेद तथा शेष भाग पर नीली टाइल्स लगायी जाती हैं तो नीली टाइल्स कितनी है।
(a) 16	(b) 24	(a) 16	(b) 24
(c) 32	(d) 48	(c) 32	(d) 48
(e) None of these		(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं
36.  What is the least number of same size square tiles required to pave the floor of a room 15 m 17 cm long and 9 m 2 cm broad?		36. 15 मी. 17 सेमी. लम्बे तथा 9 मी. 2 सेमी. चैड़े फर्श पर कम से कम समान आकार की कितनी वर्गाकार टाइल्स लगाई जा सकती हैं।
(a) 814	(b) 820	(a) 814	(b) 820
(c) 840	(c) 840	(c) 840	(c) 840
37.  The perimeter of a square is 48 cm. The area of a rectangle is 4 cm2 less than the area of the square. If the length of the rectangle is 14 cm, then its perimeter is:		37. एक वर्ग का परिमाप 48 सेमी. है तथा एक आयत का क्षेत्रफल इससे 4 वर्ग सेमी. कम है तो उसका परिमाप कितना होगा। यदि आयत की लम्बाई 14 सेमी. हो।
(a) 24	(b) 48 cm	(a) 24 cm	(b) 48 cm
(c) 50 cm	(d) 54 cm	(c) 50 cm	(d) 54 cm
38.  A park square in shape has a 3 metere wide road inside it running along its sides. The area occupied by the road is 1764 square metres. What is the perimeter along the outer edge of the road.		38. एक पार्क वर्गाकार है जिसके अंदर चारों ओर 3 मीटर चैड़ी सड़क बनी है। जिसका क्षेत्रफल 1764 वर्ग मी. है तो सड़क के बाहरी कितनांे का परिमाप कितना होगा?
(a) 576 meters	(b) 600 metres	(a) 576 meters	(b) 600 metres
(c) 640 metres	(d) Data inadequate	(c) 640 metres	(d) आँकड़े अपर्याप्त हैं
(e) None of these		(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं
39.  A man walked diagonally across a square lot. Approximately, what was the percent saved by not walking along the edges?		39. एक व्यक्ति एक वर्ग की भुजाओं के अनुदिश न चलकर विकर्णतः चले तो वह लगभग कितने प्रतिशत समय बचा लेगा।
(a) 20	(b) 24	(a) 20	(b) 24
(c) 30	(d) 33	(c) 30	(d) 33
40.  If the length of the diagonal of a square is 20 cm, the its perimeter must be:		40. एक वर्ग का विकर्ण 20 सेमी. है तो उसका परिमाप कितना होगा?
(a) cm	(b) 40 cm	(a) cm	(b) 40 cm
(c)  cm	(d) 200 cm	(c)  cm	(d) 200 cm
41.  The area of a square field is 69696 cm2. Its diagonal will be equal to:		41. एक वर्गाकार मैदान का क्षेत्रफल 69696 वर्ग सेमी. है तो उसका विकर्ण कितना होगा।
(a) 313.296 m	(b) 353.296 m	(a) 313.296 m	(b) 353.296 m
(c) 373.296 m	(d) 393.296 m	(c) 373.296 m	(d) 393.296 m
42.  What will be the length of the diagonal of that square plot whose area is equal to he area of a rectangular plot of length 45 metres and breadth 20 metres ?		42. उस वर्ग के विकर्ण की माप क्या होगी जिसका क्षेत्रफल एक आयत के क्षेत्रफल के बराबर है। जिसकी लम्बाई 45 मी. तथा चैड़ाई 20 मी. हो।
(a) 42.5 metres	(b) 60 metres	(a) 42.5 metres	(b) 60 metres
(c) 75 metres	(d) Data inadequae	(c) 75 metres	(d) vk¡dM+s vi;kZIr gSa
(e) None of these		(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं
43.  The length of a rectangle is 20% more than its breadth. What will be the ratio of the area of a rectangle to that of a square whose side is equal to the breadth of the rectangle?		43. एक आयत की लम्बाई चैड़ाई से 20ः ज्यादा है तो इस आयत तथा वर्ग के क्षेत्रफल के बीच अनुपात क्या होगा। यदि वर्ग की भुजा आयत की चैड़ाई के बराबर होगी।
(a) 2 : 1	(b) 5 : 6	(a) 2 : 1	(b) 5 : 6
(c) 6 : 5	(d) Data inadequate	(c) 6 : 5	(d) आँकड़े अपर्याप्त हैं
(e) None of these		(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं
44.  The diagonal of a square is cm. The diagonal of another square whose area is double that of the first square, is:		44. एक वर्ग का विकर्ण सेमी. है तथा दूसरे वर्ग का विकर्ण क्या होगा जिसका क्षेत्रफल इस वर्ग के क्षेत्रफल का दो गुना हो
(a) 8 cm	(b)  cm	(a) 8 cm	(b)  cm
(c)	(d) 16 cm	(c)	(d) 16 cm
45.  The ratio of the area of a square to that of the square drawn on its diagonal, is:		45. एक वर्ग तथा उसके विकर्ण पर बने वर्ग के क्षेत्रफल के बीच अनुपात क्या होगा।
(a) 1 : 2	(b) 2 : 3	(a) 1 : 2	(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4	(d) 4 : 5	(c) 3 : 4	(d) 4 : 5
46.  If the ratio of areas of two squares is 225: 256 then the ratio of their perimeters is:		46. दो वर्गों के क्षेत्रफलों के बीच अनुपात 225: 256 है तो उनके परिमापांे के बीच अनुपात क्या होगा?
(a) 225 : 256	(b) 256 : 225	(a) 225 : 256	(b) 256 : 225
(c) 15 : 16	(d) 16 : 15	(c) 15 : 16	(d) 16 : 15
47.  What happens to the area of a square when its side is halved? Its area will:		47. किसी वर्ग की भुजा आदी कर दी जाये तो उसका क्षेत्रफल मूल क्षेत्रफल का कितना होगा ?
(a) remain same	(b) become half	(a) नियत रहेगा	(b) आधा हो जायेगा
(c) become one-fourth	(d) become double	(c) एक चैथाई होगा	(d) दो गुना हो जायेगा
48.  An error of 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of error in the calculated area of the square is:		48. एक वर्ग की भुजा नापते समय 2ः की त्रुटि हो जाती है तो उसके क्षेत्रफल में कितने प्रतिशत त्रुटि होगी?
(a) 2%	(b) 0.02%	(a) 2%	(b) 0.02%
(c) 4%	(d) 4.04%	(c) 4%	(d) 4.04%
49.  If the area of a square increases by 69%, then the side of the square increases by:		49. यदि किसी वर्ग का क्षेत्रफल 69ः बढ़ जाये तो उसकी भुजा कितने प्रतिशत बढ़ेगी।
(a) 13%	(b) 30%	(a) 13%	(b) 30%
(c) 39%	(d) 69%	(c) 39%	(d) 69%
50.  The length of one opposite sides of a square is increased by 5 cm on each side; the ratio of the length and the breadth of the newly formed rectangle becomes 3 : 2. What is the area of the original square?		50. यदि किसी वर्ग की दो विपरीत भुजाओं को 5 सेमी. बढ़ाया जाये तो बने आयत की लम्बाई और चैड़ाई में अनुपात 3: 2 हो जाता है तो मूल वर्ग का क्षेत्रफल कितना था?
(a) 25 sq. cm	(b) 81 sq. cm	(a) 25 sq. cm	(b) 81 sq. cm
(c) 100 sq. cm	(d) 225 sq. cm	(c) 100 sq. cm	(d) 225 sq. cm
(e) None of these		(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं
51.  The difference of the areas of two squares drawn on two line segments of different lengths is 32 sq. cm. Find the length of the greater line segment if one is longer than the other by 2 cm.		51. दो वर्गों के क्षेत्रफलांे के बीच अंतर 32 वर्ग सेमी. है। यदि बड़े वर्ग की भुजा छोटे वर्ग की भुजा से 2 सेमी. ज्यादा हो तो बड़े वर्ग की भुजा कितनी है।
(a) 7 cm	(b) 9 cm	(a) 7 cm	(b) 9 cm
(c) 11 cm	(d) 16 cm	(c) 11 cm	(d) 16 cm
52.  The areas of a square and a rectangle are equal. The length of the rectangle is greater than the length of any side of the square by 5 cm and the breadth is less by 3 cm. Find the perimeter of the rectangle.		52. यदि एक वर्ग और आयत का क्षेत्रफल समान हो और आयत की लम्बाई वर्ग की भुजा से 5 सेमी. ज्यादा हो और चैड़ाई 3 सेमी. कम हो तो आयत का परिमाप कितना होगा?
(a) 17 cm	(b) 26 cm	(a) 17 cm	(b) 26 cm
(c) 30 cm	(d) 34 cm	(c) 30 cm	(d) 34 cm
53.  A tank is 25 m long, 12 m wide and 6 m deep. The cost of plastering its walls and bottom at 75 paise per sq. m, is:		53. एक टंकी 25 मी. लम्बी, 12 मीटर चैड़ी तथा 6 मीटर गहरी तो  उसके फर्श और दीवारों पर 75 पैसे प्रति वर्ग मीटर की दर से प्लास्टर करने का खर्च क्या है?
(a) Rs. 456	(b) Rs. 458	(a) Rs. 456	(b) Rs. 458
(c) Rs. 558	(d) Rs. 568	(c) Rs. 558	(d) Rs. 568
54.  The base of a triangle is 15 cm and height is 12 cm. The height of another triangle of double the area having he base 20 cm is:		54. एक त्रिभुज का आधार 15 सेमी. और ऊँचाई 12 सेमी. यदि दूसरे  त्रिभुज की ऊँचाई इसकी दो गुनी हो तथा आधार 20 सेमी. हो तो उसका क्षेत्रफल क्या होगा?
(a) 8 cm	(b) 9 cm	(a) 8 cm	(b) 9 cm
(c) 12.5 cm	(d) 18 cm	(c) 12.5 cm	(d) 18 cm
55.  ABC is a triangle with base AB. D is a point on AB such that AB = 5 and DB = 3. What is the ratio of the area of to the area of		55. ।ठब् एक त्रिभुज है जिसमंे ।ठ आधार है  क्ए ।ठ  पर एक बिन्दु है जिसमें ।ठ त्र 5 और क्ठ त्र 3 तो क्।क्ब् और क्।ठब् के क्षेत्रफल के बीच अनुपात क्या है।
(a) 2 : 3	(b) 3 : 2	(a) 2 : 3	(b) 3 : 2
(c) 2 : 5	(d) 3 : 5	(c) 2 : 5	(d) 3 : 5
56.  The area of a right-angled triangle is 40 times its base. What is its height?		56. एक समकोंण त्रिभुज का क्षेत्रफल उसके आधार पर 40 गुना तो उसकी ऊँचाई कितनी है?
(a) 45 cm	(b) 60 cm	(a) 45 cm	(b) 60 cm
(c) 80 cm	(d) Data inadequate	(c) 80 cm	(d) आँकड़े अपर्याप्त हैं
(e) None of these		(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं
57.  If the area of a triangle is 1176 cm2 and base: corresponding attitude is 3 : 4, then the altitude of the triangle is :		57. यदि एक त्रिभुज का क्षेत्रफल 1176 वर्ग सेमी. हो तथा उसके आधार और ऊँचाई के बीच अनुपात 3: 4 हो तो उसकी ऊँचाई कितनी है?
(a) 42 cm	(b) 52 cm	(a) 42 cm	(b) 52 cm
(c) 54 cm	(d) 56 cm	(c) 54 cm	(d) 56 cm
58.  The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of . If the perimeter is 52 cm, then the length is:		58. एक त्रिभुज की भुजाओं के बीच अनुपात  है। यदि उसका परिमाप 52 सेमी. हो तो उसकी लम्बाई क्या होगी?
(a) 6 cm	(b) 10 cm	(a) 6 cm	(b) 10 cm
(c) 11 cm	(d) 12 cm	(c) 11 cm	(d) 12 cm
59.  The area of a triangle is 216 cm2 and its sides are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. The perimeter of the triangle is:		59. एक त्रिभुज का क्षेत्रफल 200 सेमी. है और उसकी भुजाआंे के बीच अनुपात 3: 4: 5 तो परिमाप क्या है।
(a) 6 cm	(b) 12 cm	(a) 6 cm	(b) 12 cm
(c) 36 cm	(d) 72 cm	(c) 36 cm	(d) 72 cm
60.  The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. The area (in cm2) of the triangle formed by joined the mid-points of he sides of this triangle is :		60. एक त्रिभुज की भुजायंे 3, 4 और 5 सेमी. हैं तो इन भुजाआंे के मध्य बिन्दुआंे को मिलाने से बने त्रिभुज का क्षेत्रफल क्या होगा?
(a)  3/4	(b) 3/2	(a) 3/4	(b)3/2
(c) 3	(d) 6	(c) 3	(d) 6